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John
2nd April 2003, 22:47
Imaginary matches:

Bob's Case
Man United V Arsenal.
Man United win the game 1-0.
Beckham scores the only goal of the game.
At the bookies Bob backed Beckham to be the first scorer.
Would Bob get the returns plus his stake back?

Fred's Case
Man United V Arsenal.
Man United win the game 1-0.
Beckham scores the only goal of the game.
At the bookies Fred backed Beckham to be the last scorer.
Would Fred get the returns plus his stake back?

If a game finishes 1-0 and a first/last scorer bet is placed, I don't know how the bookies decide whether the scorer was a first scorer or a last scorer. Please can someone help answer my question?

Thanks in advance. ;)

TheOldhamWhisper
3rd April 2003, 07:20
Thread Copied from Football Tips section.

Excellent question, SJ. In this case, both Bob and Fred are paid out. The bookies have already worked this one out and they brought out the 'Correct Score/First Scorer' bets to make sure that the 'mug' punter had plenty to waste his money on. These bets are 'special' in that instead of being treated as a regular 'double', they are treated as a single bet with odds approximately 40% less than the value of the potential double.

John
3rd April 2003, 14:33
That makes sense now! It ran through my head as soon as Vassell scored last night. Sorry for initially posting in the wrong place. :blue I imagine bookies are sometimes mauled when there are a lot of 1-0 results.

Many thanks to you all for your help! :spinning